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While such cases "stick out" in our minds because they are so noticable and salient, it's possible that they are actually the exception rather than the norm (i.e. the gender actually matches in most cases). This isn't my area of specialty, but I have a hunch this may be the case.

In theory, to weigh in on this issue, we would need a large computational study drawing on the gender of a large set of translation equivalents, e.g. using the WordNets for various languages. I'm not sure if such a study has been done, but I wouldn't be surprised if it has.

Note also that the percentage of gender agreement between two languages will likely depend on which pair of languages you select (e.g. German + French will likely have lower agreement than a more closely related pair like Spanish + Catalan).