Why not I without you ?

asked 2017-04-29 00:43:53 -0400

Why do we say "Me without you" instead of "I without you" ? Shouldn't it be "I without you" following the classical grammar rules as we can identify I as a subject and you as a complement?

Following other languages the logic seems to differ all the time. French people would say: "Moi sans toi" ("Me without you") as well. As well as Italians with "Io senza te" ("Me without you")

But others languages as spanish, swedish or german would respectively say "Yo sin ti", "Jag utan dig" or "Ich ohne dich" ("I without you"). We so can't identify "I without you" as a pattern of germanic languages and "Me without you" as a pattern of latin languages as spanish people say "I without you".

Is "Me without you" just a common mistake than has been accepted with the centuries as it has probably been "I without you" in old english ?

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