If a language (i.e. English) replaces 100% lexicon of its lexicon (so this includes personal pronouns) will it still belong to the same language family (i.e. Germanic)?

asked 2018-02-16 07:31:55 -0500

If a language (i.e. English) replaces 100% lexicon of its lexicon (so this includes personal pronouns) will it still belong to the same language family (i.e. Germanic)?

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