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2018-03-06 16:37:52 -0500 asked a question If a language (i.e. English) replaces 100% lexicon of its lexicon (so this includes personal pronouns) will it still belong to the same language family (i.e. Germanic)?

If a language (i.e. English) replaces 100% lexicon of its lexicon (so this includes personal pronouns) will it still bel